THE CELL
 
Multiple Choice
 
1. Which is NOT true about the cell theory? 
A. Its various parts were described by Schleiden, Schwann, and Virchow. 
B. It states that all organisms are composed of cells. 
C. It states that all cells come from preexisting cells. 
D. It states that bacteria and other small organisms can arise spontaneously. 
E. It is accepted today by biologists as applying to virtually all forms of life. 

3. Which is NOT a reason for the small size of cells? 
A. As the linear dimensions of a cell increase, the volume increases twice as fast as the surface area. 
B. Nutrients and wastes must enter and leave the cell through the plasma membrane. 
C. The nucleus can only control a certain amount of cytoplasm. 
D. The increased number of organelles requires that eukaryotic cells be smaller than prokaryotic cells. 
E. Materials must be able to move quickly and efficiently through the cytoplasm.
 
4. A high-powered microscope that produces an image from scattered secondary electrons is the 
A. immunofluorescence microscope. 
B. bright-field light microscope. 
C. transmission electron microscope (TEM). 
D. scanning electron microscope (SEM). 
E. confocal microscope. 

7. Which statement is NOT true about bacteria? 
A. Their cell wall is made of a slime layer that is the same as in plant cell walls. 
B. Some are photosynthetic. 
C. Some are chemosynthetic. 
D. They are all prokaryotes. 
E. They have a cell wall that contains peptidoglycan.
 
8. Which statement is NOT true about bacterial anatomy? 
A. The cell wall is located outside of the plasma membrane. 
B. The gelatinous sheath is located inside the cell wall. 
C. There may be small rings of accessory DNA called plasmids. 
D. Bacteria may have pili that help attach the bacteria to other structures. 
  
12. Which is NOT true of eukaryotic cells? 
A. A true nucleus contains the chromosomes. 
B. Eukaryotic cells contain membrane-bounded compartments. 
C. They contain ribosomes that are smaller than those of prokaryotic cells. 
D. They all contain mitochondria. 
E. They contain many organelles in the cytoplasm.
 
13. Cells that do NOT produce cell walls are 
A. animal cells. 
B. plant cells. 
C. bacteria. 
D. algae. 

15. Which of the following is NOT offered as evidence in support of the endosymbiotic theory, the belief that a 
eukaryotic cell has evolved as a “committee” of prokaryotic cells? 
A. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are similar in size and structure to some species of bacteria. 
B. The ribosomes of chloroplasts and mitochondria have base sequences similar to eubacteria. 
C. Mitochondria and chloroplasts can actively break away from eukaryotic cells and live on their own. 
D. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have their own DNA coding separate from the eukaryotic nucleus, and it is a 
circular loop like bacteria have. 
E. Mitochondria and chloroplasts have multiple membranes so the outer membrane may have derived from 
the plasma membrane of the engulfing host cell. 
F. All of the above are offered in support of the endosymbiotic theory.
 
17. A eukaryotic organelle that can best be seen with the light microscope is the 
A. endoplasmic reticulum. 
B. nucleus. 
C. ribosome. 
D. polyribosome. 
E. microtubule. 

18. The nucleus is NOT important as the site of 
A. DNA synthesis. 
B. RNA synthesis. 
C. synthesis of ribosomal subunits. 
D. protein synthesis. 
. 
20. Which is a true statement about ribosomes? 
A. Ribosomes contain DNA and protein. 
B. Ribosomes are active in carbohydrate synthesis. 
C. Ribosomal subunits leave the nucleus and form ribosomes in the cytoplasm. 
D. Polyribosomes are the subunits of ribosomes. 
E. Ribosomes are only found associated with the endoplasmic reticulum in prokaryotic cells.
 
21. Which of these is NOT part of the endomembrane system of the cell? 
A. mitochondria 
B. endoplasmic reticulum 
C. lysosomes 
D. Golgi complex 

23. Which is NOT true concerning the Golgi complex? 
A. It consists of a stack of saccules. 
B. Golgi complexes in animal cells have a forming face and a maturing face. 
C. Molecules are modified within the lumen of Golgi saccules. 
D. Lysosomes are vesicles that bind to enter the Golgi saccules. 
E. Golgi apparatus contains enzymes.
 
24. The springtail is a very common small insect that lives in rotten logs, rich soil, and other humid places. Its 
cuticle is water repelling (hydrophobic) except for a strange organ, the collophore, on its ventral side. Because it 
lacks the excretory organs of other insects, the springtail has this organ in contact with the water (it is 
responsible for ion balance and secretion of wastes). If we examined the cell structure of this collophore, we 
would expect to find a high number of 
A. nuclei. 
B. ribosomes. 
C. Golgi bodies. 
D. lysosomes. 
E. centrioles. 

26. Lysosomes are produced by the 
A. vacuoles. 
B. nucleus. 
C. mitochondria. 
D. Golgi apparatus. 
E. ribosomes. 

27. Membrane-bounded vesicles that contain enzymes for oxidizing small organic molecules with the formation of 
hydrogen peroxide are 
A. vacuoles. 
B. vesicles. 
C. glyoxisomes. 
D. lysosomes. 
E. peroxisomes. 

28. Large membranous sacs that are more prevalent in plant cells and some protozoa than in animal cells are called 
A. vacuoles. 
B. vesicles. 
C. glyoxisomes. 
D. lysosomes. 
E. peroxisomes.
 
29. Which is NOT a characteristic of chloroplasts? 
A. A chloroplast is surrounded by a double membrane. 
B. Chlorophyll absorbs solar energy that is used to form chemical bonds. 
C. A membrane inside a chloroplast is called a thylakoid. 
D. Stacks called grana are linked by membranous connections. 
E. Chlorophylls are found in the fluid stroma of the chloroplast.
 
30. Which is NOT a characteristic of mitochondria? 
A. A mitochondrion has two membranes. 
B. Mitochondria are the site of cellular respiration. 
C. Mitochondria are found in prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells. 
D. Mitochondria contain DNA and ribosomes. 
E. The inner space of the mitochondrion contains a fluid matrix.
 
32. Actin filaments are 
A. also known as microtubules. 
B. able to assemble and disassemble from component proteins. 
C. found in the center of flagella and cilia. 
D. intermediate in size between microtubules and microfilaments. 
E. made of different kinds of components in different tissues. 
 
34. The cells that line our respiratory tract, and one-celled paramecia both have these short hair-like projections. 
A. flagella 
B. microfilaments 
C. centrioles 
D. cilia 
E. pili 

40. Prokaryotes are characterized by all of the following structures EXCEPT 
A. a nucleoid. 
B. inclusion bodies. 
C. mitochondria. 
D. mesosomes. 
 
42. All of the following are parts of plant cells EXCEPT 
A. centrioles. 
B. mitochondria. 
C. chloroplasts. 
D. cell walls. 

44. Which of the following gives rise to both lysosomes and vesicles? the 
A. rough endoplasmic reticula 
B. mitochondria 
C. Golgi apparati 
D. ribosomes
 
45. The plant cell's central vacuole 
A. provides the plant cell with support. 
B. stores nutrients and cellular waste products. 
C. is a reservoir for water. 
D. all of the previous.
 
46. Of the following, which is NOT associated with the mitochondria? 
A. ATP productions 
B. cristae 
C. stroma 
D. matrix 

True/False 
47. Cells are surrounded by a plasma membrane. 
48. A cell is the smallest unit of living matter.  
49. All cells have a cell wall that regulates the passage of molecules into and out of the cell.  
50. The DNA of a prokaryotic cell is located in the nucleoid region.
51. The cytosol is the fluid that bathes the structures that are located in the cytoplasm.  
52. Ribosomes are found in both prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells.
53. Bacteria and algae are prokaryotic cells. 
54. Prokaryotic cells are about half the size of eukaryotic cells, on average. 
55. Bacterial and eukaryotic flagella have the same structure made of microtubules. 
56. Bacterial and eukaryotic thylakoids are involved in photosynthesis. 
57. The endoplasmic reticulum is a membranous system that is continuous with the nuclear envelope. 
58. Peroxisomes are abundant in cells that metabolize lipids or alcohol.
59. Chloroplasts are found in plants but not in bacteria. 
60. Mitochondria are thought to be derived from photosynthetic bacteria that became part of the eukaryotic cell 
through endosymbiosis. 
61. The interaction between an energy-related organelle and the eukaryotic cell in which it resides is called 
parasitism. 
62. Mitochondria and chloroplasts are able to reproduce independently from the division of the cell.  
63. Actin filaments, intermediate filaments, and microtubules compose the cytoskeleton. 
64. A cytoskeleton is found in prokaryotic cells.

Energy and Enzymes
Multiple Choice 
1. Which form of energy is NOT correctly associated with an example? 
A. kinetic energy: fat molecules 
B. kinetic energy: movement of muscles 
C. chemical energy: glucose 
D. potential energy: water held behind a dam 
E. potential energy: ATP 
2. Which best describes the first law of thermodynamics? 
A. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. 
B. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. 
C. Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. 
D. Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. 
E. Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another. 
3. Which best describes the second law of thermodynamics? 
A. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change into matter. 
B. Energy is not created nor destroyed, but it can change from one energy form to another. 
C. Energy can be created from matter or used to produce matter. 
D. Some useful energy is lost as heat whenever an energy transfer occurs. 
E. Energy transfers are always 100% efficient in changing energy from one useful form to another. 
4. Which of the following is consistent with the laws of physics governing energy? 
A. When a liter of gasoline is burned in a car engine, 100% of its energy goes into moving the car along the 
road. 
B. You eat a “quarter-pounder” hamburger and assemble exactly a quarter-pound of additional body weight on 
your body. 
C. Eventually sunlight that is absorbed on the earth returns to space as dispersed heat. 
D. A calorie of sunlight becomes a calorie of plant tissue that, eaten by you, becomes a calorie of heat lost in 
muscle “power.” 
E. Chemical bonds are a case of converting energy to matter; breaking the bonds converts matter to energy. 
7. A living organism represents stored energy in the form of chemical compounds. When an organism dies, what 
happens to this stored energy? 
A. All chemicals immediately lose their high-energy bonds. 
B. All molecules immediately degrade into basic elements. 
C. All energy immediately leaves, and that is one manifestation that the organism is dead. 
D. The chemical compounds in cells lose their organization over time because there is no longer an input of 
energy to maintain the organized state. 
E. The chemical compounds remain exactly intact and ready to start up again unless digested by a consumer or 
decay organism.  
9. Astrophysicists explain that eventually the sun will swell to become a red giant, engulf the earth and “burn out” 
with all forms of energy dispersing in a final “heat death.” Compared with conditions today, the entropy of the 
universe then will 
A. have increased greatly. 
B. have decreased greatly. 
C. remain the same because energy cannot be created or destroyed. 
10. All of the biochemical pathways in a cell constitute 
A. coupling reactions. 
B. free energy. 
C. endergonic reactions only. 
D. exergonic reactions only. 
E. metabolism. 
11. Endergonic reactions 
A. are always coupling reactions. 
B. have a negative .G and occur spontaneously. 
C. can only occur if there is an input of energy. 
D. have products with less free energy than the reactants. 
E. All of the above are correct. 
12. Which of these statements is NOT a consequence of the second law of thermodynamics? 
A. While the total amount of energy is unchanged, the energy lost as heat is no longer useful to the cell in 
doing work. 
B. Reactions that occur spontaneously are those that increase the amount of useful energy in a system. 
C. The amount of disorder in the universe is always increasing. 
D. To maintain organization of a cell, a continual input of energy is required. 
13. Coupling occurs when the energy released by an exergonic reaction is 
A. used to drive another exergonic reaction. 
B. used to drive an endergonic reaction. 
C. lost as nonusable heat to the environment. 
D. used to decrease the entropy of the universe. 
E. All of the above are correct. 
14. The subunits from which ATP is made are 
A. ADP and phosphate. 
B. FAD and NAD+. 
C. FAD and NADPH. 
D. ADP and FAD. 
E. ADP and NAD+. 
15. ATP is considered to be 
A. an enzyme used widely in all kinds of cells. 
B. a coenzyme used to inhibit or activate different enzymes. 
C. a molecule that carries a great deal of chemical energy in a chemical bond. 
D. the precursor of a high-energy membrane-bounded protein. 
16. ATP is considered a high-energy compound because under cellular conditions, 7.3 kcal per mole of energy is 
released when a bond is broken between 
A. the base adenine and the sugar ribose. 
B. the adenosine and the phosphate groups. 
C. the base adenine and the phosphate groups. 
D. the adenosine diphosphate and the third phosphate. 
E. All of the above bonds release energy as ATP is completely broken down.  
17. While eating a container of yogurt, you have to leave, so you store the yogurt in the refrigerator. A day later you 
return and find the surface of the yogurt is no longer smooth but has broken into several liquified products. You 
correctly guess that enzymes from your saliva, via the spoon, have continued digesting the yogurt in your 
absence. What will happen over time? 
A. The reaction will soon stop because the amount of saliva is small, and you would have to add more saliva 
to continue the degradation. 
B. The reaction will continue indefinitely since the enzyme is not consumed by the reaction. 
C. The reaction will continue until half is digested and then stop because the reaction between substrate and 
product will be balanced. 
D. Absolutely no degradation of the yogurt will occur naturally unless in the presence of this enzyme. 
18. If there are twelve different intermediate products produced in the stages for production of a molecule in a cell, 
we can expect that there 
A. is one enzyme that carries this process through to the end product. 
B. is one enzyme for degradation and another enzyme for synthesis. 
C. may not be any enzymes involved if this is a natural cell product. 
D. must be twelve different raw materials combined in the cell by one enzyme. 
E. are about twelve enzymes, at least one responsible for each step in the metabolic pathway. 
19. Which of the following is characteristic of enzymes? 
A. They lower the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate. 
B. They raise the energy of activation of a reaction by binding the substrate. 
C. They lower the amount of energy present in the substrate. 
D. They raise the amount of energy present in the substrate. 
20. An enzyme is generally named by adding _____ to the end of the name of the ______. 
A. “-ose,” cell in which it is found 
B. “-ase,” cell in which it is found 
C. “-ose,” substrate 
D. “-ase,” substrate 
E. “-ase,” coenzyme 
21. Lactose is milk sugar, and humans produce substantial lactase enzyme to digest it when we are infants. 
However, we soon lose some or even all of our lactase after childhood. In such cases, undigested lactose passes 
to the lower intestine where bacteria break it down into lactic acid and CO2, causing painful gas bloating. This 
problem could be avoided by 
A. avoiding all dairy products containing lactose. 
B. taking lactase enzyme tablets when consuming lactose products. 
C. taking any enzyme tablets when consuming dairy products. 
D. consuming lactose in tablet form. 
E. Both A and B are correct. 
22. Which statement describes the currently accepted theory of how an enzyme and its substrate fit together? 
A. As the product is released, the enzyme breaks down. 
B. The enzyme is like a key that fits into the substrate, which is like a lock. 
C. The active site is permanently changed by its interaction with the substrate. 
D. As the substrate binds to the enzyme, the shape of the active site changes to accommodate the reaction. 
23. Which statement is NOT true about the effects of various conditions on the activity of an enzyme? 
A. Higher temperatures generally increase the activity of an enzyme up to a point. 
B. Above a certain range of temperatures, the protein of an enzyme is denatured. 
C. A change in pH can cause an enzyme to be inactivated. 
D. An enzyme’s activity is generally reduced by an increase in substrate concentration. 
E. When sufficient substrate is available, the active site will nearly always be occupied. 
25. Which statement is NOT true about enzyme inhibition? 
A. In competitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the active site of the enzyme. 
B. In noncompetitive inhibition, the inhibitor binds to the allosteric site of the substrate. 
C. In irreversible inhibition, a poison binds to the enzyme so that it can never work again. 
D. Most inhibitors act in a reversible fashion. 
E. All of the above statements are true. 
26. Which is most closely associated with negative feedback? 
A. As you turn on a faucet, more water flows out of it. 
B. As the sun rises, a morning glory opens its flowers. 
C. As the temperature falls in a house, the heater comes on. 
D. As you study biology more thoroughly, you learn more about it. 
27. A coenzyme is 
A. an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. 
B. a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. 
C. a nonprotein organic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to allow it to work. 
D. an ionic cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it. 
E. a protein cofactor that interacts with an enzyme to inhibit it. 
28. A substance that is NOT a coenzyme is 
A. ATP. 
B. NAD+. 
C. NADPH. 
D. FAD. 
29. Solar energy is stored in which molecules during photosynthesis? 
A. FAD 
B. ATP 
C. NADPH 
D. Both B and C are correct. 
30. Which organelles contain functioning ATP synthetase complexes in their membranes? 
A. Golgi complexes and lysosomes 
B. mitochondria and chloroplasts 
C. endoplasmic reticulum and vesicles 
D. vacuoles and vesicles 
E. mitochondria and endoplasmic reticulum 
32. What establishes the electrochemical gradient across a membrane to provide energy for ATP production? 
A. The chloroplast’s electron transport system provides the ions. 
B. Hydrogen ions naturally collect on the outside of the organelle membrane. 
C. Hydrogen ions are pumped across the membrane by carrier proteins. 
D. All of the above establish the electrochemical gradient. 
33. Which of the following is NOT a form of potential energy? 
A. food 
B. water in a dam 
C. a muscle contracting 
D. all of the previous 
35. Energy coupling of endergonic and exergonic reactions within cells 
A. permits biological reactions to proceed at temperatures consistent with life. 
B. uses heat released by one reaction to fuel the other reaction. 
C. utilizes ATP to carry energy between the exergonic and endergonic reactions. 
D. all of the previous. 
36. ATP 
A. supplies energy needed to synthesize macromolecules within the cell. 
B. supplies energy required to pump substances across the plasma membranes. 
C. is the energy source for mucscles to contract. 
D. all of the previous. 
37. Poisons 
A. may be enzyme inhibitors. 
B. may be certain antibiotics. 
C. affect prokaryotes and eukaryotic cells differently. 
D. all of the previous. 
38. Of the following, which process will not denature a protein? 
A. temperatures above 100 degrees Centigrade 
B. strong acids or strong bases 
C. alcohol 
D. distilled water 
39. If a reaction results in one molecule losing an electron and a second molecule gaining that electron, the electron 
donor is said to be 
A. reduced. 
B. transformed. 
C. oxidized. 
D. inhibited. 
40. In the electron transport systems of chloroplasts and mitrochondria, 
A. the system consists of a series of membrane bound carriers that transfer electrons from one carrier to 
another. 
B. high energy electrons enter the system and low energy electrons exit the system. 
C. energy release occurs when the electron transfers from one carrier to another. 
D. all of the previous. 

True/False 
41. Since energy is completely used up by a cell, the cell requires more energy to enter it in the form of food.  
42. All organisms produce heat during their metabolic processes. 
43. All energy used to allow a cell to function can ultimately be traced back to an origin in the external 
environment. 
44. In order to roll a rock down a hillside, you must first push it up out of the hole in which it rests. Pushing the 
rock is analogous to the energy of activation of a chemical reaction.  
45. In cellular metabolism, chemical reactions occur randomly in various parts of the cell, as chemicals happen to 
bump into each other. 
46. As energy is converted into heat and work in a cell, the energy will either leave the cell or be stored in various 
chemical bonds. 
47. The ultimate source of nearly all the energy that is used to support life is sunlight.  
48. An enzyme is a globular protein that inhibits the formation of chemical bonds within the enzyme’s substrate(s). 

49. The energy of activation is the energy that must be supplied so that molecules are able to interact with each 
other in a chemical reaction.  
50. Feedback inhibition is the process that turns off an early enzyme in a metabolic pathway as the result of 
inhibitory actions of a product of the pathway.  
51. ATP is produced and used continuously in all active cells. 
52. The energy for ATP synthesis in chemiosmotic phosphorylation comes from the movement of hydrogen ions 
across a membrane down a concentration gradient. 
53. The electron transport system is associated with the binding of an enzyme to its substrate.  
54. The entire ATP content of a cell is recycled about once every 15 minutes. 
55. Vitamins are required for the action of every enzyme in a cell.  
56. Energy for all life processes is derrived directly or indirectly from the sun.  
57. Activation of an enzyme can be due to phosphorylation. 

Plasma Cell Membrane
Multiple Choice 
1. The major functions of the plasma membrane do NOT include 
A. separation of the fluid environments inside and outside the cell. 
B. regulation of molecules and ions that pass into and out of the cell. 
C. recognition and communication between different cells and tissues. 
D. maintaining connections between adjacent cells. 
E. production of proteins used in construction of the cell wall. 
2. Which of the following functions does the lipid bilayer component of the cell membrane NOT provide for the 
cell? 
A. controls the exchange of matter and chemical information between one cell and adjacent cells or 
environment 
B. provides an impermeable, self-sealing membrane capable of dividing or fusing the cell without breaking 
C. provides the matrix into which are inserted proteins that facilitate the exchange of matter between the 
inside and outside of the cell 
D. clearly defines a boundary preventing an equilibrium between the outside and inside of the cell 
E. provides a fluid and flexible boundary that insulates the interior from the variations in humidity, food, and 
other external conditions 
4. In a phospholipid bilayer, the 
A. phosphate groups are hydrophobic. 
B. fatty acid tails are ionized. 
C. fatty acid tails are hydrophilic. 
D. proteins are located only between the two layers. 
E. phosphate heads are oriented toward the exterior of the cell or toward the cytoplasm. 
5. Which statement is true about the plasma membrane? 
A. The proteins make up the matrix of the membrane. 
B. The model can be likened to a sandwich where phospholipids are like the bread and proteins are like the 
filling. 
C. The fluid nature of the membrane is regulated by flip-flopping of the phospholipids from one side of the 
membrane to the other. 
D. Movement of proteins and phospholipids can occur sideways within the plane of the membrane. 
6. Which statement is NOT true about the proteins in the plasma membrane? 
A. Proteins may be attached to the inner surface of the plasma membrane. 
B. The hydrophobic portion of a protein is embedded within the membrane. 
C. Some plasma proteins are connected to cytoskeletal filaments. 
D. Plasma proteins are responsible for membrane functions. 
E. Glycoproteins contain carbohydrate chains that are oriented toward the inner surface of the membrane. 
7. Which phrase does NOT describe one of the functions of proteins of the plasma membrane? 
A. forming a channel through the membrane 
*B. initiating the replication of the genetic material 
C. binding to a substance to carry it through the membrane 
D. acting as a receptor for substances external to the cell 
E. increasing the rate of a chemical reaction 

10. Whether a molecule can cross the plasma membrane depends upon 
A. the size of the molecule. 
B. the shape of the molecule. 
C. the chemical properties of the molecule. 
D. the charge of the molecule. 
E. all of the above. 
11. Which is the best definition of diffusion? 
A. movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration 
B. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area 
of lower water concentration 
C. movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration 
D. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area 
of higher water concentration 
E. movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP 
13. Which is the best definition of osmosis? 
A. movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration 
B. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area 
of lower water concentration 
C. movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration 
D. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area 
of higher water concentration 
E. movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP 
15. Plants show turgor pressure when 
A. cells are losing water from their water vacuoles. 
*B. cells contain water vacuoles that are full of water. 
C. water is being used up in photosynthesis. 
D. water is being evaporated from the leaves. 

33 
16. If a cell is placed in a hypotonic solution, which will occur? 
A. Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
B. Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
C. Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
D. Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
E. None of the above will occur. 
17. If a cell is placed in a hypertonic solution, which will occur? 
A. Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
B. Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
C. Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
D. Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
E. None of the above will occur. 
18. If a cell is placed in an isotonic solution, which will occur? 
A. Salts will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
B. Water will move into the cell from the surrounding solution. 
C. Salts will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
D. Water will move out of the cell into the surrounding solution. 
E. None of the above will occur. 
20. Freshwater protozoans react to a/an _____ environment by removing water through _____. 
A. hypertonic, turgor pressure 
B. hypotonic, turgor pressure 
C. isotonic, a contractile vacuole 
D. hypertonic, a contractile vacuole 
E. hypotonic, a contractile vacuole 
21. _______ is a shrinking of the cytoplasm due to osmosis. 
A. Plasmolysis 
B. Endocytosis 
C. Crenation 
D. Diffusion 
E. Turgor 
22. Which is the best definition of active transport? 
A. movement of molecules from an area of their higher concentration to an area of their lower concentration 
B. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of high water concentration to an area 
of lower water concentration 
C. movement of molecules from an area of their lower concentration to an area of their higher concentration 
D. movement of water across a semipermeable membrane from an area of low water concentration to an area of 
higher water concentration 
E. movement of a substance against its concentration through the release of energy from ATP 
23. The sodium-potassium pump moves sodium and potassium ions across the plasma membrane by 
A. facilitated transport. 
B. active transport. 
C. cotransport. 
D. endocytosis. 
E. exocytosis. 
25. The process by which cholesterol is transported into the cell by binding of. 
26. Which term is derived from the Greek root word meaning “out of cell”? 
A. osmosis 
B. endocytosis 
C. tonicity 
D. diffusion 
E. exocytosis 
27. Cell products are secreted from the cell through 
A. facilitated transport. 
B. active transport. 
C. cotransport. 
D. endocytosis. 
E. exocytosis. 
28. Pinocytosis is an example of 
A. facilitated transport. 
B. active transport. 
C. cotransport. 
D. endocytosis. 
E. exocytosis. 
31. In speculating upon the origin of early cells and the cell membrane, which of the following statements is/are 
NOT plausible? 
A. Due to similarities in basic structure, the endoplasmic reticulum, Golgi body, vesicles, and other 
cytomembranes” may have arisen as invaginations of the cell membrane. 
B. As long as a phospholipid-production mechanism is present, these molecules would naturally arrange 
themselves in two layers with the hydrophobic tails on the inside away from water. 
C. It would be nearly impossible to have a cell without a cell membrane. 
D. All of the above are plausible. 
E. None of the above is plausible. . 
33. Which of the following is NOT associated with animal cells? 
A. an extracellular matrix 
B. plasmodesmata 
C. gap junctions 
D. adhesion junctions (desmosomes) 
E. tight junctions 
34. A major chemical that functions to stiffen animal cell membranes and thus regulates the fluidity of the animal 
cell membrane is 
A. cholesterol. 
B. lipid in nature. 
C. a steroid. 
D. all of the previous. 
35. Proteins in a membrane are 
A. peripheral if they are on the inside surface held in place by the cytoskeleton. 
B. integral if they are embedded in the membrane. 
C. integral if they protrude from only one surface of the bilayer. 
D. all of the previous. 
36. Which of the following protein functions is not correctly associated with its correct integral protein? 
A. carrier proteins–passage of molecules through the membrane 
B. enzymatic proteins–carry out metabolic reactions directly 
C. channel proteins–block the activity of carrier proteins 
D. cell recognition proteins–recognize pathogens 
37. Active transport 
A. require an input of ATP. 
B. is involved in diffusion. 
C. occurs in osmosis and facilitated transport. 
D. all of the previous. 
38. A red blood cell placed in 50% NaCl solution will 
A. undergo crenation. 
B. swell and eventually burst due to water intake. 
C. stay the same size. 
D. none of the previous. 
39. If phagocytosis can be compared to cellular eating, the pinocytosis can be compared to 
A. cellular elimination. 
B. cellular drinking. 
C. cellular dehydration. 
D. none of the previous. 
40. Which of the following associations is NOT correct? 
A. adhesion junctions---hold cells together to form a flexible sheet of cells in an organ 
B. tight junctions---between cells serving as barriers 
C. plasmodesmata---between adjacent plant cells 
D. gap junctions---between differing types of plasma membranes 


True/False 
42. The barrier between the interior of a human cell and its external environment is known as the cell wall.  
43. Lipid-soluble molecules are able to diffuse into a cell more rapidly than water-soluble molecules. 
44. The modern model of plasma membrane structure was first described in 1986. 
45. Fluidity of a membrane increases as the percentage of unsaturated fatty acids in the phospholipids goes up. 
46. The lipid portion of a plasma membrane acts like a liquid at the temperature of the human body. 
47. All cells contain the same kinds of proteins in the same relative locations. 
48. Crenation of red blood cells results when the red bloods cells lose water into a fluid environment that contains 
more solutes than the cell. 
49. Cells placed in an isotonic environment will die as they swell and burst.  
50. Carrier proteins are necessary for active transport to occur.
51. In the sodium-potassium pump, sodium is transported out of the cell and potassium is transported into the cell 
as ATP is broken by a membrane protein.
52. The process by which a white blood cell or an amoeba engulfs bacteria is called phagocytosis. 
53. Receptors are involved in the movement of some materials across the plasma membrane.  
54. An extracellular matrix helps some cells to adhere to neighboring cells. 
55. In the cells that line the lumen of the small intestine, gap junctions keep materials from the digestive tract from 
slipping between the cells and entering the tissues. 
56. An isotonic solution has a solute concentration that is the same as that found inside of the cell. 
57. A hypertonic solution has a water concentration greater than that that is found inside the cell.  

PHOTOSYNTHESIS

Multiple Choice 
1. What are the products of photosynthesis? 
A. water and carbon dioxide 
B. water and oxygen 
C. oxygen and carbohydrate 
D. carbohydrate and water 
2. What organisms are capable of photosynthesis? 
A. plants only 
B. plants and algae only 
C. plants and some bacteria only 
D. plants, algae, and some bacteria 
3. Sunlight arrives at a plant in units of light energy called 
A. protons. 
B. photons. 
C. electrons. 
D. wavelengths. 
6. The action spectrum of photosynthesis shows a high light absorption for violet/blue and orange/red and a low 
absorption for green/yellow. If we were to set up an experiment where narrow bands of unicolored light were shown 
on an aquatic plant such as Elodea, and we counted the number of bubbles of oxygen produced as an indicator of 
photosynthetic rate, how would the graph appear? 
A. just like the action spectrum with peaks at violet/blue and orange/red and a trough at yellow/green 
B. exactly inverted from the action spectrum with a peak for yellow/green 
C. perfectly flat because many wavelengths are used by chlorophyll 
D. a descending line because ultra-violet has more energy than infra-red 
E. There is no way to guess without actually running the experiment. 
7. When an electron has been excited to a higher energy state, it can then drop back to the original level, re-emitting 
the light as fluorescence. When chlorophyll is extracted in solution, and a bright red or blue light is shown on it, 
the chlorophyll fluoresces brightly. However, when the chlorophyll is packaged inside chloroplasts and the red or 
blue light is turned on, there is no fluorescence. This most likely indicates that 
A. the red and blue light waves are reflected by the chlorophyll membrane. 
B. chlorophyll in solution is a different molecule than chlorophyll in a chloroplast. 
C. excited electrons are transferred to electron acceptors in the chloroplast. 
D. fluorescence does not work in living cells. 
E. green light must be used to make living cells fluoresce. 
8. Which of these is NOT a major photosynthetic pigment in plants? 
A. chlorophyll a 
B. chlorophyll b 
C. chlorophyll c 
D. carotenoid pigments 
9. Why are plants green? 
A. They absorb only green wavelengths of light. 
B. They absorb only yellow and blue wavelengths of light. 
C. They reflect nearly all wavelengths of light. 
D. They reflect green wavelengths of light. 
E. They reflect yellow and blue wavelengths of light. 
10. An early experiment by Van Helmont (1600s) describes how he “grew a tree in a large pot and found that after five 
years, the amount of soil in the pot had not changed. He concluded that the increase in weight was due to the addition 
of water.” At that time, the compounds in the air had not yet been identified. Today, you know that he only discovered 
half the story. Which additional experiment would provide evidence for the rest of the story? 
A. A very careful audit of the water taken in and lost by the tree would have revealed only half the added 
weight gained by the tree. 
B. Carbon is discovered as a major element in trees and is lacking in water molecules. 
C. Radioactive carbon in CO2 in the air is soon located as part of tree structures. 
D. The critical experiment involves the conversion of nutrients in the soil. 
E. A, B and C are correct. 
12. To what does the term stroma refer? 
A. the double membrane of the chloroplast 
B. a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast 
C. a stack of thylakoid membrane structures 
D. the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast 
E. the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids 
13. To what does the term grana refer? 
A. the double membrane of the chloroplast 
B. a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast 
C. a stack of thylakoid membrane structures 
D. the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast 
E. the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids 
16. Which of these is most closely associated with the process of electron transport? 
A. the double membrane of the chloroplast 
B. a flattened disk or sac in the chloroplast 
C. a stack of thylakoid membrane structures 
D. the central fluid-filled space of the chloroplast 
E. the cytochrome system in the membranes of the thylakoids 
19. Protons (H+) accumulate in the thylakoid space during electron transport between photosystems I and II. The 
excess of protons in the thylakoid space 
A. enters the photorespiration pathway. 
B. converts NADP to NADPH and generates ATP in the process. 
C. is small enough to diffuse back out through the lipid bilayer. 
D. raises the pH of the space until the processes stop. 
E. moves from the thylakoid space to the stroma through an ATP synthase complex channel that generates ATP. 
20. Which statement is NOT true about the cyclic electron pathway? 
A. It produces ATP. 
B. It involves Photosystem I. 
C. It produces NADPH. 
D. It is believed to be the first of the two electron transport pathways to have developed. 
21. Which statement is NOT true about the noncyclic electron pathway? 
A. It absorbs photons into Photosystem I. 
B. It absorbs photons into Photosystem II. 
C. It produces ATP. 
D. It produces NADPH. 
E. It produces carbohydrates through carbon dioxide fixation. 
22. Which is NOT true about photosynthesis? 
A. In noncyclic photophosphorylation, water is split and oxygen is released. 
B. Photosystem II makes noncyclic photophosphorylation more efficient than does cyclic 
photophosphorylation. 
C. The cyclic system is used when there is insufficient NADP+ present to absorb electrons in plant cells. 
D. More carbohydrate is produced during cyclic photophosphorylation than during noncyclic 
photophosphorylation. 
23. Which is most closely associated with the Calvin cycle? 
A. ATP production 
B. oxygen production 
C. carbon dioxide fixation 
D. carbon dioxide production 
E. removal of electrons from water for passage through an electron transport system 
24. The end product of the Calvin cycle is 
A. ATP. 
B. ribulose bisphosphate (RuBP). 
C. phosphoglyceraldehyde (PGAL). 
D. PEP carboxylase (PEPcase). 
E. carbon dioxide. 
27. The first event in the Calvin cycle is the attachment of carbon dioxide to the five-carbon RuBP molecule, which 
A. forms a six-carbon molecule that immediately breaks down into two three-carbon PGA molecules. 
B. is a reaction assisted by large quantities of RuBP carboxylase enzyme. 
C. decreases cell carbon dioxide levels, which increases the diffusion gradient. 
D. immediately becomes a six-carbon sugar that is the base for starch, sucrose, cellulose, etc. 
E. A, B, and C are correct. 
28. Most food plants, such as wheat, oats, and rice, are in the group of 
A. CAM plants. 
B. C3 plants. 
C. C4 plants. 
31. Which would be a CAM plant? 
A. cactus 
B. corn 
C. rice 
D. wheat 
E. oak tree 
35. The Calvin cycle requires all of the following except _____________ to occur. 
A. ATP, NADPH 
B. carbon dioxide 
C. light 
D. ribulose bis-phosphate 
36. PGAL (glyceraldehyde - 3- phosphate) is used by plants for all of the following EXCEPT the formation of 
A. fatty acids. 
B. amino acids. 
C. oxygen. 
D. sucrose. 
37. C-4 plants 
A. store carbon dioxide temporarily as oxaloacetate. 
B. are found in hot dry climates. 
C. have a net photosynthetic rate two to three times that of C-3 plants. 
D. all of the previous. 
True/False 
39. Fossil fuels are full of energy stored from photosynthesis millions of years ago.  
40. The energy content of photons is inversely proportional to the wavelength of the radiation.  
41. Short-wavelength radiation has lower energy content than long-wavelength radiation. 
42. Only photons from portions of visible light can be taken up by chlorophyll. 
43. Chlorophyll b is the pigment most involved in the reaction centers of photosystems.  
44. The light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis occur in the stroma of the chloroplast. 
45. Light-dependent reactions occur after light-independent reactions in the process of photosynthesis.  
46. The first part of the noncyclic electron pathway involves the removal of electrons from water. 
47. Some bacteria use noncyclic photophosphorylation, which does not produce oxygen or split water molecules. 
48. Chemiosmotic ATP synthesis occurs in the cytosol of the cell. 
49. The enzyme complex called ATP synthetase is located in the thylakoid membranes. 
50. Carbon dioxide first binds to a five-carbon molecule, forming a six-carbon molecule that splits to form two 
three-carbon molecules. 
51. Photorespiration is the process by which light is used to release the stored energy in carbohydrate molecules to 
perform all work in plant cells. 
52. Plants that conduct C-4 metabolism are desert plants.  
53. The light independent reactions of the Calvin cycle occur in the thylakoids. 
54. Phosphoenylpyruvate carboxylase fixes carbon dioxide to PEP to form oxaloacetate within mesophyll cells of 
the C-4 plants. 

Cell Division 
Multiple Choice 
1. Which is NOT true about bacterial chromosomes? 
A. There is generally only one chromosome in each bacterial cell. 
B. A bacterial chromosome is present in a single copy per cell. 
C. A bacterial chromosome is located in the nucleoid region. 
D. A bacterial chromosome is in a loop. 
E. A bacterial chromosome is located in the nucleus. 
2. The structure that contains the genetic information in a bacterial cell is called the 
A. nucleus. 
B. nucleoid. 
C. nucleolus. 
D. nucleosome. 
E. nucleoprotein. 
4. The speed of binary fission used by bacteria (such as Escherichia coli that live in our intestine) is 
A. considerably slower than mitosis of advanced organisms since bacteria are so primitive. 
B. considerably faster than mitosis of advanced organisms. 
C. essentially the same speed as mitosis in advanced organisms since the need to build DNA and new cell 
components is the same in both organisms. 
9. Which is NOT true about the chromosomes of a multicellular organism? 
A. They are made up of DNA and protein. 
B. Each chromosome is replicated into two chromatids during the S phase of interphase. 
C. Each chromosome separates into two daughter chromosomes by binary fission. 
D. All cells contain chromosomes that carry the same genetic information. 
12. Generally, complex organisms do require more genes to control their synthesis and organization than do 
primitive organisms. However, the numbers of chromosomes vary from ants with 2, molds with 8-14, humans 
with 46, potatoes with 100 and the crayfish with 200! And some birds and insects have chromosomes that 
dwindle in size into obscurity, so it is not possible to establish a diploid number. Given this, then 
A. there must be no relationship between amount of genetic information and complexity of the organism. 
B. the number of genes per chromosome may vary among organisms, preventing a simple relationship 
between chromosome number and complexity. 
C. birds and insects probably cannot follow the same mitotic laws as other organisms. 
D. all of the above are correct. 
13. Which statement is NOT true about eukaryotic chromosomes? 
A. There is only one chromosome of each type in each body cell. 
B. Chromosomes contain both DNA and associated histones. 
C. Chromosomes condense from chromatin at the start of mitosis. 
D. Chromosomes disperse back into chromatin at the end of mitosis. 
E. Chromosomes are not located within the nuclear envelope during mitosis. 
14. The diploid (2n) number of chromosomes for humans is 
A. 23. 
B. 24. 
C. 44. 
D. 46. 
E. 48. 
16. The term built from the Greek root word meaning “star” is 
A. aster. 
B. nucleus. 
C. chromatin. 
D. cytokinesis. 
E. centromere. 
17. Which statement is NOT true about mitosis? 
A. Mitosis is a process that duplicates and divides the nuclear contents only. 
B. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same number of chromosomes as the parent cell. 
C. Mitosis produces two daughter cells that contain the same kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell. 
D. Mitosis uses a 2n parent cell to form daughter cells containing n chromosomes. 
E. Mitosis is involved in development of a fertilized egg into a multicellular organism. 
18. Which represents the correct sequence of stages in the cell cycle? 
A. G1, G2, S, M 
B. G1, G2, M, S 
C. G1, M, G2, S 
D. G1, S, G2, M 
20. At the completion of mitosis, 
A. the cell has undergone G1, S, and G2 phases. 
B. each chromosome is composed of a single chromatid once more. 
C. the daughter cell nuclei have acquired the same number and kinds of chromosomes as the parent cell 
nucleus. 
D. the cell may not have yet undergone cytokinesis. 
E. B, C, and D are correct. 
23. During which stage of the cell cycle is cell growth and replication of organelles most significant? 
A. M phase 
B. G1 phase 
C. G2 phase 
D. S phase 
E. G0 phase 
24. Which stage is most associated with a cell that is unable to divide again, such as a muscle or nerve cell? 
A. M phase 
B. G1 phase 
C. G2 phase 
D. S phase 
E. G0 phase 
26. Which sequence of stages in mitosis is correct? 
A. prophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, telophase 
B. prophase, telophase, anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase 
C. prophase, prometaphase, metaphase, anaphase, telophase 
D. telophase, anaphase, prophase, prometaphase, metaphase 
E. anaphase, prometaphase, metaphase, prophase, telophase 
28. Which occurs in metaphase? 
A. Centrioles move to opposite poles. 
B. Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. 
C. Chromosomes move to opposite poles. 
D. The nuclear envelope disappears. 
29. Which occurs in anaphase? 
A. Centrioles move to opposite poles. 
B. Chromosomes line up along the equator of the dividing cell. 
C. Chromosomes move to opposite poles. 
D. The nuclear envelope disappears. 
E. The nuclear envelope is constructed. 
30. Plant cells differ from animal cells in mitosis in all EXCEPT which of these ways? 
A. Plants lack centrioles, but animals have them. 
B. Plants lack microtubules and spindles, but animals have them. 
C. Plants lack cell furrows, but animals have them. 
D. Plants form a cell plate, but animals do not. 
E. Plants develop a cell wall between daughter cells, but animals do not. 
31. Which does NOT occur in telophase? 
A. Cytokinesis is under way. 
B. The nuclear envelope is being constructed. 
C. The centromeres split apart. 
D. Chromosomes de-condense into chromatin. 
E. The nucleolus reforms. 
32. Cytokinesis in plant cells differs from this process in animal cells because 
A. the plant endoplasmic reticulum forms a cell plate. 
B. microtubules are laid down in a plywood-like cell plate pattern. 
C. the Golgi apparatus produces vesicles that migrate along microtubules and fuse to become a cell plate. 
D. the inner plasma membrane divides by cytokinesis as in animal cells and then secretes a cellulose cell wall. 
E. asters coalesce to form a fibrous plate that reinforces with cellulose. 
33. Binary fission by bacteria differs from mitosis because 
A. the chromosome copies attach to the plasma membrane and are pulled apart by cell growth. 
B. the chromosome is a simple DNA strand without complex proteins and no spindle forms. 
C. there is no nuclear membrane to break down and rebuild. 
D. All of the above are correct. 
35. In multicellular organisms, mitosis is 
A. the means of tissue growth and repair. 
B. a way of generating new kinds of mutant or recombinant organisms. 
C. the means of sexual reproduction. 
D. not useful in stem cell lines that constantly replace skin, etc. 
E. able to occur in only a few cells of specialized tissues. 
39. Which of the following is NOT true about cancer cells? 
A. They never fully differentiate. 
B. They exhibit contact inhibition. 
C. They exhibit uncontrolled growth. 
D. They exhibit disorganized growth. 
E. They may undergo metastasis. 
40. Which is NOT correctly associated with cancer? 
A. Angiogenesis forms new blood vessels and brings nutrients and oxygen to the tumor. 
B. The disorganized mass of cells is encapsulated and does not invade adjacent tissue. 
C. Metastasis establishes new tumors distant from the site of the primary tumor. 
D. Cells have receptors to adhere to basement membranes, then secrete proteinase enzymes to invade 
underlying tissues. 
E. Tumors invade surrounding tissues and are filtered by lymph nodes. 
42. Although cancer may originate in many regions of the body, many patients die from cancerous growth in the 
lungs, lymph glands, or liver. This is most readily explained as 
A. spreading of cancer by angiogenesis. 
B. metastasis occurring more commonly in organs that have a filter effect. 
C. proteinase enzymes making cancer particularly damaging to these tissues. 
D. growth anywhere but in these organs is called benign. 
E. due to these organs simply being more susceptible to cancer. 
44. Which of the following are carcinogens? 
A. radon gas 
B. X-rays 
C. some viruses 
D. some chemicals 
E. All of the above include carcinogens. 
45. Stages of the cell cycle include 
A. interphase. 
B. mitosis. 
C. cytokinesis. 
D. all of the previous. 
48. Eukaryotic chromosomes 
A. consist of both DNA and protein. 
B. may occur as chromatin. 
C. contain histones responsible for packaging DNA to fit into a small space. 
D. all of the previous. 
49. The overall process of mitosis functions to ensure 
A. growth and tissue repair. 
B. that each new cell receives a complete set of genetic information. 
C. asexual reproduction in some species. 
D. all of the previous. 
50. The event that signals the start of anaphase is 
A. division of the centromeres to separate sister chromatids. 
B. migration of the centrioles to opposite poles of the nuclear space. 
C. a cleavage furrow starts to form. 
D. asters disappear. 
True/False 
53. Reproduction of the cell and reproduction of the organism require two different kinds of division in bacteria. 
54. Reproduction of the cell and reproduction of the organism require two different kinds of division in eukaryotic 
organisms such as humans.  
55. Sexual and asexual reproduction require two different kinds of cell divisions.  
56. The haploid (n) number of chromosomes is found in nearly all cells of humans and most other animals.  
57. Cell division in eukaryotes involves two separate processes called mitosis and cytokinesis.
58. Contact inhibition stops normal cells from dividing when they come in contact with neighboring cells, but this 
is not functional in cancer cells. 
59. Only outside influences affect whether a cell can divide or not. 
60. DNA replication occurs in the stage of the cell cycle just before mitosis. 
61. Liver cells are specialized cells that normally do not divide, but they can go through mitosis and produce new 
cells to repair injury to the liver. 
62. Generally, brain and nerve cells are not able to regenerate after injury because they have left the cell cycle and 
are unable to return.
63. Short rays of microtubules called asters form around the centriole at the poles of dividing plant and animal cells. 
64. Cytokinesis begins during the latter part of anaphase.  
65. Binary fission uses a spindle for separation of daughter chromosomes, just as in mitosis.  
66. A microtubule organizing center is located at each pole of the dividing cell in both plants and animals. True 
67. Cytokinesis in plant cells is associated with the formation of a cleavage furrow. 
68. Organisms produced as a result of mitosis exhibit a great deal of genetic variation.